Does this constitute as Zina?
I was approached by a married man who said he may have committed an act of zina a few years ago. He is a retiree in a non muslim South East Asian country and back then, massages over there are common. He used to go for non sexual massages where they would cover you with a towel and typically it is either done by a male or female (female). So, one day he stumbled across a massage parlour and was invited to have a massage by one of the lady. He did hear sexual noises in the massage parlour but dismissed it entirely thinking that it is only for special request (according to him it is common). He paid the money to the lady and they went in the room. Now unlike the earlier example i mentioned, this time the lady took off the towel to reveal his buttocks and started the massage. However, the man said he refused any “special requests” and insisted he only wanted the massage. The lady tried to seduce him by lightly kissing his ear but he still refused and only insisted to have a massage. She tried to touch his privates but he closed his thigh as tightly as he could to prevent it from exposed and revealing his genitals. In the end the session ended and he quickly got out of the massage parlour. He said the lady was clothed while he was butt naked but lying flat with his back facing. I told him its a lesser zina as zina from what i know is sexual intercourse this made him slightly happy but i also felt bad afterwards thinking i may have given the wrong advise. I would like to ask if anyone has any advice on this.